If a married women is pregnant and says her body and her baby are her property, then decides to have an abortion, could the baby really be viewed as property? uming the woman and husband entered into a type of premarital contract could the women be contractually obligated to share the baby? If she doesn't want to have the baby, does she forfeit additional property (money, jewelry, etc) to compensate for the denied half of the husbands baby?
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